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single16-Apr-2009opinionFauxLo Survey Central Gold Subscriber Survey Qualifier by votes32759.3%

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Should the guilty always be made to pay for their crimes?

Or are there exceptions?



VotesAnswer
7Yes, they should pay for their crimes.
5No, there are special circumstances in which they should not have to answer for their crimes.
3It depends on the crime.
2I have something else to say.
0I have no opinion on the matter.

UserComment
FauxLo Survey Central Gold Subscriber Survey Qualifier
posted 17-Apr-2009 4:20pm  
I think it depends on the crime. When it comes down to it, we're all guilty of something and most of us don't answer for many "crimes". I don't see why some illegal crimes should be treated any differently in an imperfect world.
bill Survey Central Gold Subscriber Double Gold Star Survey Creator
posted 17-Apr-2009 6:48pm  
I worry that exceptions could unravel the whole thing.
LJD Survey Qualifier
posted 17-Apr-2009 6:55pm  
Yes, in some way or another
JessicaWoman99
posted 17-Apr-2009 8:49pm  
It all depends on the crime
cerealkiller Gold Star Survey Creator Gold Qualifier
posted 17-Apr-2009 10:27pm  
No.
Amanda
posted 18-Apr-2009 12:01am  
There are exceptions to every rule.
jettles Survey Central Gold Subscriber Bronze Star Survey Creator Gold Qualifier
posted 18-Apr-2009 7:49am  
i think it depends on the situation and the crime and i do think that most people who are guilty of "something" do "pay" for their crime in some way, maybe not what society or certain people demand of the situation but they do pay in other ways.
one example would be: i kill someone who is raping, harming, beating my partner. i am guilty of murder even though i was defending someone. i know that i will "pay" for that in my own mind for the rest of my life although society may not try me or find me not guilty. i am pretty sure i would psychologically have difficulty with the taking of a life even though i could rationalize it away.
dab Survey Central Gold Subscriber Gold Qualifier
(reply to jettles) posted 18-Apr-2009 8:14am  
I would argue that in the example you gave, morally you would not have committed murder but simply killed in defense. Legally it's called justifiable homicide, a distinction from murder and rightfully so in my opinion. You may be right that you'd feel guilty and have psychological difficulties as a result; some people do. However, such feelings are not necessary if you did in fact act correctly and not everyone punishes themselves that way. Another possible response, for example, is anger at the criminal who put you in the position where your best choice was so extreme and undesirable.
Enheduanna Survey Central Subscriber
posted 18-Apr-2009 9:06am  
I don't know. In general it's a good rule, although what "pay" means is awfully ambiguous. But I can also imagine that there are crimes where a person might be guilty but shouldn't be punished, perhaps if they hadn't intended to do what they did, or if they were mentally incompetent and didn't even know/understand what they'd done.
jettles Survey Central Gold Subscriber Bronze Star Survey Creator Gold Qualifier
(reply to dab) posted 18-Apr-2009 3:30pm  
i still would have killed someone......... and it would be looked at as a crime until it was determined to be "justifiable homicide". my point was the "paying" for the crime not the argument of what is a crime. our society has determined that it is justifiable homicide but another may not. just as many women who have killed their abusing husbands when they come home and the woman feels threatened and ultimately kills him, are found guilty of murder, for whatever reason............ society may not find it justifiable where you or i might but they are forced to "pay" via jail sentence. i also feel that even the women who don't go to jail probably "pay" in some way because of what they have done.
and you say "morally" i did not commit a murder, i would argue that morally(my individual morals) i did commit a homicide i guess.......... but not legally.
dab Survey Central Gold Subscriber Gold Qualifier
(reply to jettles) posted 19-Apr-2009 10:06am  
You would have killed someone. It would be a homicide. If the killing was legitimately defensive, it would not be murder. You might well feel badly about it anyway but not all people do. It's easy to say you shouldn't feel bad if it ever happens, but individual responses vary. Hopefully none of us will ever have to find out.
jettles Survey Central Gold Subscriber Bronze Star Survey Creator Gold Qualifier
(reply to dab) posted 19-Apr-2009 3:04pm  
true true
LindaH Survey Central Gold Subscriber Bronze Star Survey Creator Survey Qualifier
posted 19-Apr-2009 9:37pm  
No. Sometimes there is no harm in letting someone get away with something. Especially if it was a one time deal specific to a situation, and something that wouldn't happen again anyway.
cloudhugger Bronze Star Survey Creator
posted 23-Apr-2009 8:20am  
You are asking a black and white question and expecting a grey in between answer.
Should, made to...
There are laws and a judiciary team for these kinds of things.
Biggles Bronze Star Survey Creator Gold Qualifier
posted 25-Apr-2009 6:45pm  
Answering for one's crimes and paying for them are two very different things.
LindaH Survey Central Gold Subscriber Bronze Star Survey Creator Survey Qualifier
(reply to Biggles) posted 25-Apr-2009 10:17pm  
Some crimes, there is no 'payment' to be made, because there was no loss
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